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8020考試備考經驗 & 8020測試引擎
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PRMIA 8020 考試大綱:
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8020測試引擎 - 8020考試心得
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最新的 PRM Certification 8020 免費考試真題 (Q29-Q34):
問題 #29
Which of the following principles best applies to a compliance function?
- A. The compliance function should report to the business (even when following a three lines of defense model).
- B. The risk function should be outsourced if there is a compliance function.
- C. The compliance function should be independent of the business (following a three lines of defense model).
- D. The compliance function should be outsourced if there is a risk function.
答案:C
解題說明:
Step 1: Compliance Function and the Three Lines of Defense Model
The Three Lines of Defense (3LoD) model ensures that risk management responsibilities are properly segregated:
First Line: Business units (own and manage risk).
Second Line: Compliance and risk management (independent oversight).
Third Line: Internal audit (provides assurance).
Step 2: Why Compliance Must Be Independent
PRMIA and Basel Compliance Principles state that compliance should not report to business units, as this creates a conflict of interest.
Compliance must be independent to ensure objective oversight of regulatory adherence.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Report to the business") → Incorrect because compliance must provide independent oversight, not report to business units.
Option C ("Outsource compliance if risk function exists") → Incorrect because compliance and risk functions have distinct roles.
Option D ("Outsource risk if compliance exists") → Incorrect because risk management is a core function, not an outsourcing candidate.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Compliance Risk Governance - States compliance must be independent under the Three Lines of Defense model.
Basel Compliance Principles - Recommends separate reporting structures for compliance and business units.
Final Conclusion:
Compliance must be independent from the business to avoid conflicts of interest, making Option B the correct answer.
問題 #30
How can a chief risk officer encourage the governing body and executive management team to create a stronger risk culture?
- A. Having a vision of achievable but not excessive ambition.
- B. Discourage personal accountability to avoid a blame culture.
- C. Establish a set of objectives that the board and executive team must adhere to.
- D. Balance rewarding success in profitability goals with punishment when there is a failure to achieve goals.
答案:A
解題說明:
A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) plays a crucial role in shaping and strengthening the risk culture within an organization. PRMIA defines risk culture as the shared values, beliefs, knowledge, and understanding about risk that drive behaviors within an institution.
Setting a Clear Vision
The CRO should communicate a vision of risk management that aligns with organizational goals while ensuring that risk-taking remains within acceptable limits.
The vision should be achievable and realistic, rather than overly ambitious, which could incentivize reckless risk-taking.
Embedding Risk Awareness into Decision-Making
A strong risk culture ensures that risk considerations are embedded into business decision-making rather than treated as a separate compliance exercise.
This is supported by PRMIA's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Framework, which stresses integrating risk management into strategy and operations.
Avoiding a Blame Culture
A risk-aware organization promotes accountability without fear, enabling employees to report risks without retribution.
Option B (Discourage personal accountability to avoid a blame culture) is incorrect because personal accountability is essential for a healthy risk culture.
Avoiding a Strict, Prescriptive Approach
A set of rigid objectives that must be followed by the executive team (Option C) does not foster a dynamic, evolving risk culture.
Instead, risk culture should be flexible and adaptive to emerging risks.
Balancing Incentives and Consequences
While balancing rewards with penalties (Option D) is part of governance, a strong risk culture is not built solely through fear of punishment.
PRMIA emphasizes positive reinforcement, such as linking risk management behaviors to performance evaluations and incentives.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Discusses the role of leadership in shaping risk culture.
PRMIA Standards on Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) - Covers best practices for embedding risk culture within organizations.
問題 #31
For the National Australia Bank - FX Options case study, large and unusual transaction activity was a concern for what reason?
- A. Complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
- B. Deep-in-the-money options aided in the smoothing of losses.
- C. Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
- D. Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of profits and losses.
答案:D
解題說明:
The National Australia Bank (NAB) FX Options Case Study is a well-known example of operational risk, fraud, and governance failure.
What Happened?
Traders engaged in unauthorized foreign exchange (FX) options trading, using deep-in-the-money options and other complex instruments.
They manipulated profits and losses to smooth earnings and mislead risk managers and auditors.
Why Answer C is Correct
The traders smoothed both profits and losses to avoid detection and ensure continued trading bonuses.
This aligns with PRMIA's Operational Risk Management Guidelines, which highlight that hidden trading losses and smoothing techniques increase financial crime risk.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - Smoothing occurred with both profits and losses, not just losses.
B . Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - Profits were also manipulated, making this answer incomplete.
D . Deep-in-the-money options aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - This focuses only on deep-in-the-money options and ignores other structured transactions involved in the fraud.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Fraud and Risk Management Case Studies
Basel Principles on Market Risk and Internal Control Failures
問題 #32
The Internal Loss Multiplier (ILM) is part of the Basel III Standardized Approach. Which of these definitions best descibes it?
- A. It is uniform, and is used for indicating consistent incidents on an average return basis.
- B. It is a non-financial factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
- C. It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
- D. t is a scaling factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
答案:D
解題說明:
The Internal Loss Multiplier (ILM) is a key component of the Basel III Standardized Approach for Operational Risk. It is designed to adjust capital requirements based on a bank's historical loss experience.
Definition of ILM
ILM is a scaling factor that adjusts the operational risk capital requirement based on a bank's internal loss history.
It is derived using a formula that incorporates historical operational risk losses relative to a bank's revenue.
Why ILM Exists in Basel III
Basel III replaced the Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) with a Standardized Approach that includes ILM to ensure that banks with high historical losses hold more capital for operational risk.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
Incorrect - ILM is not a general financial statement proxy; it specifically adjusts capital based on past operational losses.
B . It is a non-financial factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
Incorrect - ILM is financial in nature because it directly influences capital requirements.
D . It is uniform, and is used for indicating consistent incidents on an average return basis.
Incorrect - ILM is not uniform; it is bank-specific and varies based on loss history.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Standards
Basel III Standardized Approach for Operational Risk
問題 #33
In the Basel III standardized approach for operational risk, what is the Business Indicator?
- A. It is a proxy for operational risks that relate to near-miss events.
- B. It is a financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
- C. It is a non-financial-statement-based proxy for operational risk.
- D. It is a scaling factor that is based on a bank's average historical losses.
答案:B
解題說明:
Step 1: Definition of the Business Indicator (BI) in Basel III
The Business Indicator (BI) is a financial-statement-based metric used in Basel III's Standardized Approach for Operational Risk.
It replaces previous approaches by using financial figures (e.g., revenue, fees, interest income) to estimate operational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Option D Is Correct
The BI uses financial-statement data to calculate operational risk capital requirements.
It acts as a proxy for a bank's operational risk exposure by linking operational risk to its financial size and complexity.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Proxy for near-miss events") → Incorrect because BI is based on financial data, not near-miss risk events.
Option B ("Non-financial-statement-based proxy") → Incorrect because BI is explicitly derived from financial statements.
Option C ("Scaling factor based on historical losses") → Incorrect because BI does not use historical losses directly-it relies on financial-statement inputs.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Operational Risk Framework - Defines the Business Indicator as a financial-statement-based metric.
PRMIA Operational Risk Guidelines - Explains the BI's role in capital calculations.
問題 #34
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